digital pricipals and system design

DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE AND ENGINEEING

               TWO MARK QUESTIONS WITH ANSWERS

                              (For ALL units) 

                                 SUBJECT

NAME : DIGITAL SYSTEMS SUBJECT 

CODE : CS1202CLASS : S3 (B.E) CSE

   

1.Define the term digital.

The term digital refers to any process that is accomplished using discreteunits

2.What is meant by bit?

A binary digit is called bit

3.What is the best example of digital system?

Digital computer is the best example of a digital system.

4.Define byte?

A group of 8 bits.

5.List the number systems?

i) Decimal Number system
 ii) Binary Number system 
iii) Octal Number system 
iv) Hexadecimal Number system

6.State the sequence of operator precedence in Boolean expression?

i) Parenthesis 
ii) AND 
iii) OR

7.What is the abbreviation of ASCII and EBCDIC code?

ASCII-American Standard Code for Information Interchange.
EBCDIC-Extended Binary Coded Decimal Information Code.

8.What are the universal gates?

NAND and NOR

9.What are the different types of number complements?

i) rs Complement

ii) (r-1) s Complement.

10.Why complementing a number representation is needed?

Complementing a number becomes as in digital 
computer for simplifying thesubtraction operation and for 
logical manipulation complements are used.

11.How to represent a positive and negative sign in computers?

Positive (+) sign by 0Negative (-) sign by 1.

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the hotnews

NASA astronaut Sunita Williams to vote, watch London Olympics from space

Sunita Williams, the NASA astronaut who blasted off on a Russian rocket for her second space mission on Sunday, plans to watch the Olympics and cast her vote in the US presidential election from the International Space Station.

The Press Trust of India reported that Williams, 46 — who is of Indian origin but grew up in Massachusetts — Russian Soyuz commander Yuri Malenchenko and Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency flight engineer Akihiko Hoshide began their space journey on a Soyuz rocket which took off successfully from Baikonur cosmodromein Kazakhstan.

A sports lover who swam and ran cross country in the Naval Academy, Williams said that she would catch the London action when she could from the station.

"Well, of course. It's, I mean, the Olympics, what is it — it's an international competition, to foster friendship and, and competition across, across the planet, and I think that's exactly what the International Space Station is," she reportedly said.

The US election, meantime, will fall six days before her scheduled return to earth on Nov 12.

"There's a program called Voting from Space," she said.

"We're working through it right now. I'm actually a Florida voter so ... we had to have a little bit more work involved. — Texas has already, worked through the process — and I, I will actually be voting from space."

The New York Daily News cited the US space agency as saying that the team was arriving at the station during an otherwise busy period, involving two spacewalks, the arrival of Japanese, US commercial and Russian resupply vehicles.

Williams, the second woman of Indian heritage to have been chosen by NASA for a space mission, also holds three records for female space travelers: longest space flight (195 days), number of spacewalks (four), and total time spent on spacewalks (29 hours and 17 minutes)

In an interview with India's Economic Times, Williams' father, Deepak Pandya, 80 —  a renowned Boston-based neuroanatomist — as saying he was less anxious this time around.

"Sunita is used to life in a space station," said Pandya, who is originally from Gujarat.

"This time she will be involved in experiments dealing with survival of long-duration flights for distant space travel."

According to the ET, Williams — married to a US police officer — has an affinity with her heritage, carrying a copy of the Bhagavad Gita and an idol of Lord Ganesha 

Read more »

The Top IT Company Solved Placement Papers

Image by Getty Images via @daylifeWipro Type Time & Work Problems

Time & Work is a favourite area considering placement test of any big company like Wipro. You can always expect few questions from time and work section. Though tagged as wipro sample paper, one can expect these kinds of questions in other papers as well.

Question 1

Consider three people A,B and C. Let A and B can finish a job in 21 days, B and C in 14 days and A and C in 28 days. Who will take the least time when working independently ?

Options : 1) A 2) B 3) C 4) Can't be determined

Answer 1

Correct answer is B

Consider WA, WB and WC be the work done per day by A,B and C respectively. Then

WA + WB = 1/21 -- eq 1

WB + WC = 1/14 -- eq 2

WA + WC = 1/28 -- eq 3

Eq 2 - Eq 3 will give

WB - WA = 1/14 - 1/28 = 1/28 -- eq 4

Eq 1 + Eq 4 will give

2WB = 1/21 + 1/28 = 7/84

WB = 7/168

Sub value of WB in eq 1, we get

WA = 1/21 - 7/168 = 1/168.

Sub value of WA in eq 3, we get

wc = 1/28 - WA = 1/28 - 1/168 = 5/168

Since WB (work done by B per day) is greater when compared to WA and WB clearly B will be able to the maximum work on any given day and hence he should consume least amount of time when working independently.

Question 2

Consider two postmen A and B respectively. A is young and can deliver 20 parcels in 3 hours while B is older than A and can deliver only 15 parcels in 4 hours. If the total number of parcels to deliver is 60, how long they will take working together.

a. 121/12 hours b. 144/36 hours c. 144/25 hours d. 121/25 hours

Answer 2

Correct ans is option c. 144/25 hours.

A can deliver 20 parcels in 3 hours. Hence for 1 hour he can deliver 20/3 parcels.
B can deliver 15 parcel in 4 hours. Hence for 1 hour B needs 15/4 parcels.

When A and B work together, for 1 hour they can deliver, 20/3 + 15/4 parcles = 80 + 45 /12 = 125/12 parcels.
Hence to deliver 60 parcels they would require : 60 X 12/125 = 720/125 = 144/25 hours

Question 3

Consider a courier company A which can deliver 100 parcels in 5 days with 5 men working for 8 hours a day. Consider another courier company B where every employee is equally effecient as that of company B. Company B is short of one man when compared to A and has a policy of asking its workers to work only for 6 hours a day. How long (in days) company B will take to deliver 100 parcels.

Options : a. 8.3 b. 24 c. 12 d 6.6

Answer

Correct answer is a. 8.3 days

Total amount of work W = N x D X W

where N = number of men, D = number of days, W = amount of work per day

Applying the above formula for company A we get,

Work done by company A to deliver 100 parcels = 5 X 5 X 8 = 200 -- eq 1

Work done by company B to deliver 100 parcels = 4 X D x 6 = 24D -- eq 2

Since the work to be done is same in both the cases, eq 1 = eq2

or 200 = 24D or D = 8.3



4 Sample TCS Sentence Completion Questions


Dear Reader, sentence completion questions are the ones asking you to find contextually correct words (synonyms) to fill the given blanks. These types of placement questions can be expected on papers of several companies including TCS. Hence it is very essential to develop your vocabulary and the ability to pick the correct word in context.

Question 1

Value of currency started increasing which ultimately kick started __ (a. deflation / b. depreciation / c. disinflation) in economy.

Answer : a. deflation

Reason :Deflation is the term used to denote a fall in prices of goods indicating currency value rise. Though disinflation could appear close in context, it actually means a slow rise in inflation rather than an exact opposite of inflation.

Question 2

The introduction of number zero to mathematics is considered to be one of the greatest __ (a. innovations / b. inventions / c. discoveries) of all times.

Answer: a. innovations

Reason : Innovation means a change that could be considered to have brought a great positive change in some field. Hence innovation fits the context well. However, invention means to invent something new and discovery means to find something unknown.

Question 3

__ (a. incentives / b. bonuses /c. gifts) generally motivate people to carry out tasks in an efficient manner.

Answer: a. Incentives

Reason : Incentive means a motivating factor that encourages people to carry out their tasks efficiently. Though bonuses and gifts closely suit the context, they generally mean only monetary benefits whereas incentive can mean even non monetary benefits like appreciation.

Question 4

___ (a. Idiom / b. Connotation /c. Paradox) refers to words implying different meaning than the actual literal meaning.

Answer : b. Connotation

Reason : Connotation is where words actually mean something but their implied meaning would be different. For example think of the words 'warm reception'.


Wipro Type Conceptual Interview Questions

Dear Reader, in Wipro technical interviews, you may not only expect questions from facts but also you can expect questions asking you to explain the concepts. Below are 3 sample technical interview questions that can be used by you to prepare for Wipro and other similar interviews.

Question 1

In software applications, especially in JAVA based applications, how design patterns help after a problem/requirement is identified ?

Answer 1

Design pattern can be treated as a way or template to solve a problem depending upon the nature of the problem/requirement. Though they themselves cannot solve a problem, they provide greater insights into the best possible ways to solve them.

Question 2

Say two programs essentially dealing with solving same problem through similar algorithms. Let A be written using pointers and B be written using arrays. Which one will be memory efficient and which will be more readable.

Answer 2

A will be more memory efficient than B and B will be more readable than A. Reason : generally pointers are more memory efficient when used by an experienced programmer. And arrays are generally easily readable and can be easily understood by even beginner level programmer.

Question 3

What is the integrity constraint in SQL which when used ensures that values in a column of a table have a corresponding member on another column of another table.

Answer 3

Foreign Key is the answer (self explanatory as the question itself has got the explanation)


TCS Type 3 Facts & Concepts Interview Questions

You could expect questions on TCS interviews asking you to pick and explain a right answer based on the choices presented before you. These types of questions are not only limited to TCS but can be expected on several other companies placements/interviews as well.

Question 1

Which of the C variable qualifiers amongst const and Volatile provides more data safety ? Explain the reason.

Answer 1

const is the qualifier that provides more data security by throwing error when an accidental attempt is made to modify the same.

Question 2

Which is more memory efficient in generic sense - Arrays or Linked Lists ?

Answer 2

Actually, there is no significant difference in memory requirement for arrays and linked lists as both increase with increase in data. (However, linked lists are generally easier to work with dynamic data)

Question 3

Among function declaration and function definition which of the following gives first hand information to the compiler about its return data type and arguments.

Answer 3

Function declaration is the answer, as it precedes function definition. With function declaration, the compiler can get to know about its return data type, the number and type of the arguments etc.

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Aptitude test

Image via Wikipedia1)APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 50 ; time limit = 50 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test
There was individual cut off for all the sections
Section1- English, 15 questions


Direction 1-5 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is ‘no error’

1. Unless you stop to make noise at once,/ I will have no option but to / bring the matter to the attention of the police / No error
A B C D
Ans: A

2.The Minister along with his / party colleagues have / been invited to the party / No error
A B C D
Ans: B

3. A group of friends / want to visit/ the new plant as early as possible / No error
A B C D
Ans: B

4. It is rude / for the young / making fun of their elders/ No error
A B C D
Ans : C

5. Meerabai was sent away from her home/ because she spend most of the time/ in the company of holy men/ No error
A B C D
Ans : B

Directions 6-10 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

6. Madan……………the first prize in this competition
A) bore up B) bore with C) bore out D) bore away
Ans: A

7. In large cities people are cut………………from nature.
A) down B) out C) off D) away
Ans: C

8. Your friend died……………over work
A) of B) from C) due to D) with
Ans: A

9. It is not easy to beat……………..a swarm of wasps if they attack you
A) out B) up C) down D) off
Ans: D

10. What a sensation it would cause if it……………………now discovered that such a man had left behind a diary.
A) is B) be C) was were
Ans: D

Directions 11-12: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.

11. Mona was writing a letter to her father.
A) A letter was written to her father by Mona
B) A letter has been written to her father by Mona
C) A letter was being written by Mona to her father
D) a letter was written by Mona to her father
Ans: C

12. He teaches us grammar
A) Grammar is taught to us by him
B) We are being taught Grammar by him
C) Grammar is being taught us by him
D) We are taught Grammar by him
Ans: D

Directions 13-15: The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

13. Basement : Attic
A) Nadir : Zenith B) Zenith : Apex C) Zenith : Root D) Apex : Pinnacle
Ans : A

14. Sip : Gulp
A) Touch : Push B) Cup : Glass C) Tent : Hut D) Soap : Water
Ans : A

15. Parsing : Grammar
A) Running : Health B) Praying : God C) Para trooping : Air force D) Cleaning : House
Ans : C

Section 2-apptitude 15 questions

The questions 1-6 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.

The correct answer is:
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.

1. What is John’s age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)

2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)

3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)

4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)

5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)

6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)

7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)

8. X’s father’s wife’s father’s granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)

9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)

10. If in a certain code “RANGE” is coded as 12345 and “RANDOM” is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word
“MANGO” would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)

11. If “PROMPT” is coded as QSPLOS ,then “PLAYER” should be
(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI
Ans. (a)

12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)

13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the
truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14
Ans.(b)

14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can
they type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75
Ans: E

15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how
many times they toll together.
a) 4
b) 10
c) 15
d) 16
Ans: d)

Section3-technical ,20 questions

1. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

3. The format specifier “-%d” is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable
Ans. (a)

4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)

5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)

7. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

8. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels
Ans. (b)

10. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)

11. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data
Ans. (a)

12. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?
(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

13. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM
Ans. (a)

14. A shift register can be used for
(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)

15. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady’s anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU
Ans. (a)

16. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema’s description
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

17. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of
a. 1k bytes b. 0.5k bytes c. 2k bytes d. none
Ans: b

18. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions
[a] 6 [b] 7 [c] 10 [d] none
Ans: b

19. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.
[a] 2k/9 [b] (2k+8)/9 [c] (k+8)/9 [d] 2*(k+8)/9 [e] none
Ans: a

20. Virtual memory size depends on
[a] address lines [b] data bus
[c] disc space [d] a & c [e] none
Ans : a

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Image via Wikipedia

WIPRO Placement Paper (Aptitude and Technical) 26 January 2010 | PART -1

1)APTITUDE TEST:

Questions = 50 ; time limit = 50 minutes. no negative marking. Offline (paper & pen) test
There was individual cut off for all the sections
Section1- English, 15 questions


Direction 1-5 : In each of the following questions, find out which part of the sentence has an error. if there is no mistake the answer is ‘no error’

1. Unless you stop to make noise at once,/ I will have no option but to / bring the matter to the attention of the police / No error
A B C D
Ans: A

2.The Minister along with his / party colleagues have / been invited to the party / No error
A B C D
Ans: B

3. A group of friends / want to visit/ the new plant as early as possible / No error
A B C D
Ans: B

4. It is rude / for the young / making fun of their elders/ No error
A B C D
Ans : C

5. Meerabai was sent away from her home/ because she spend most of the time/ in the company of holy men/ No error
A B C D
Ans : B

Directions 6-10 : Pick out the most effective word from the given words to fill in the blank to make the sentence meaningfully complete.

6. Madan……………the first prize in this competition
A) bore up B) bore with C) bore out D) bore away
Ans: A

7. In large cities people are cut………………from nature.
A) down B) out C) off D) away
Ans: C

8. Your friend died……………over work
A) of B) from C) due to D) with
Ans: A

9. It is not easy to beat……………..a swarm of wasps if they attack you
A) out B) up C) down D) off
Ans: D

10. What a sensation it would cause if it……………………now discovered that such a man had left behind a diary.
A) is B) be C) was were
Ans: D

Directions 11-12: In each of the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active (or passive) voice. Out of the four alternatives suggested select the one which best express the same sentence in Passive (or Active) Voice.

11. Mona was writing a letter to her father.
A) A letter was written to her father by Mona
B) A letter has been written to her father by Mona
C) A letter was being written by Mona to her father
D) a letter was written by Mona to her father
Ans: C

12. He teaches us grammar
A) Grammar is taught to us by him
B) We are being taught Grammar by him
C) Grammar is being taught us by him
D) We are taught Grammar by him
Ans: D

Directions 13-15: The following questions, consist of two words each that have a certain relationship to each other, followed by four lettered pairs of words. Select the lettered pair that has the same relationship as the original pair of words.

13. Basement : Attic
A) Nadir : Zenith B) Zenith : Apex C) Zenith : Root D) Apex : Pinnacle
Ans : A

14. Sip : Gulp
A) Touch : Push B) Cup : Glass C) Tent : Hut D) Soap : Water
Ans : A

15. Parsing : Grammar
A) Running : Health B) Praying : God C) Para trooping : Air force D) Cleaning : House
Ans : C

Section 2-apptitude 15 questions

The questions 1-6 are based on the following pattern. The problems below contain a question and two statements giving certain data. You have to decide whether the data given in the statements are sufficient for answering the questions.

The correct answer is:
(A) If statement (I) alone is sufficient but statement (II) alone is not sufficient.
(B) If statement (II) alone is sufficient but statement (I) alone is not sufficient.
(C) If both statements together are sufficient but neither of statements alone is sufficient.
(D) If both together are not sufficient.

1. What is John’s age?
(I) In 15 years John will be twice as old as Dias would be
(II) Dias was born 5 years ago
Ans. (C)

2. What is the distance from city A to city C in kms?
(I) City A is 90 kms from City B
(II) City B is 30 kms from City C
Ans. (D)

3.Is A=C ? A, B ,C are real numbers
(I) A-B=B-C
(II) A-2C = C-2B
Ans. (C)

4. What is the 30th term of a given sequence ?
(I) The first two terms of the sequence are 1,1/2
(II) The common difference is -1/2
Ans. (A)

5.Was Avinash early, on time or late for work?
(I) He thought his watch was 10 minutes fast
(II) Actually his watch was 5 minutes slow
Ans. (D)

6. What is the value of A if A is an integer?
(I) A4 = 1
(II) A3 + 1 = 0
Ans. (B)

7. A person travels 12 km in the southward direction and then travels 5km to the right and then travels 15km toward the right and finally travels 5km towards the east, how far is he from his starting place?
(a) 5.5 kms
(b) 3 km
(c) 13 km
(d) 6.4 km
Ans. (b)

8. X’s father’s wife’s father’s granddaughter uncle will be related to X as
(a) Son
(b) Nephew
(c) Uncle
(d) Grandfather
Ans. (c)

9. Find the next number in the series 1, 3 ,7 ,13 ,21 ,31
(a) 43
(b) 33
(c) 41
(d) 45
Ans. (a)

10. If in a certain code “RANGE” is coded as 12345 and “RANDOM” is coded as 123678. Then the code for the word
“MANGO” would be
(a) 82357
(b) 89343
(c) 84629
(d) 82347
Ans. (d)

11. If “PROMPT” is coded as QSPLOS ,then “PLAYER” should be
(a) QMBZFS
(b) QWMFDW
(c) QUREXM
(d) URESTI
Ans. (a)

12. A person travels 6km towards west, then travels 5km towards north ,then finally travels
6km towards west. Where is he with respect to his starting position?
(a) 13km east
(b) 13km northeast
(c) 13km northwest
(d) 13km west
Ans. (c)

13. If A speaks the truth 80% of the times, B speaks the truth 60% of the times. What is the probability that they tell the
truth at the same time
(a) 0.8
(b) 0.48
(c) 0.6
(d) 0.14
Ans.(b)

14. Susan can type 10 pages in 5 minutes. Mary can type 5 pages in 10 minutes. Working together, how many pages can
they type in 30 minutes?
A. 15
B. 20
C. 25
D. 65
E. 75
Ans: E

15. Six bells commence tolling together and toll at intervals 2,4,6,8,10 and 12 seconds respectively. In 30 minutes how
many times they toll together.
a) 4
b) 10
c) 15
d) 16
Ans: d)

Section3-technical ,20 questions

1. If the time quantum is too large, Round Robin scheduling degenerates to
(a) Shortest Job First Scheduling
(b) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
(c) FCFS
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

2. Transponders are used for which of the following purposes
(a) Uplinking
(b) Downlinking
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

3. The format specifier “-%d” is used for which purpose in C
(a) Left justifying a string
(b) Right justifying a string
(c) Removing a string from the console
(d) Used for the scope specification of a char[] variable
Ans. (a)

4. A sorting algorithm which can prove to be a best time algorithm in one case
and a worst time algorithm in worst case is
(a) Quick Sort
(b) Heap Sort
(c) Merge Sort
(d) Insert Sort
Ans. (a)

5. What details should never be found in the top level of a top-down design?
(a) Details
(b) Coding
(c) Decisions
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)

6. In an absolute loading scheme, which loader function is accomplished by assembler
(a) Reallocation
(b) Allocation
(c) Linking
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Ans. (d)

7. Banker’s algorithm for resource allocation deals with
(a) Deadlock prevention
(b) Deadlock avoidance
(c) Deadlock recovery
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

8. Thrashing can be avoided if
(a) The pages, belonging to the working set of the programs, are in main memory
(b) The speed of CPU is increased
(c) The speed of I/O processor are increased
(d) All of the above
Ans. (a)

9. Which of the following communications lines is best suited to interactive processing applications?
(a) Narrowband channels
(b) Simplex channels
(c) Full-duplex channels
(d) Mixed band channels
Ans. (b)

10. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except
(a) Project name
(b) Problem descriptions
(c) Feasible alternative
(d) Data flow diagrams
Ans. (d)

11. What is the main function of a data link content monitor?
(a) To detect problems in protocols
(b) To determine the type of transmission used in a data link
(c) To determine the type of switching used in a data link
(d) To determine the flow of data
Ans. (a)

12. Which of the following is a broadband communications channel?
(a) Coaxial cable
(b) Fiber optic cable
(c) Microwave circuits
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

13. Which of the following memories has the shortest access time?
(a) Cache memory
(b) Magnetic bubble memory
(c) Magnetic core memory
(d) RAM
Ans. (a)

14. A shift register can be used for
(a) Parallel to serial conversion
(b) Serial to parallel conversion
(c) Digital delay line
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)

15. In which of the following page replacement policies, Balady’s anomaly occurs?
(a) FIFO
(b) LRU
(c) LFU
(d) NRU
Ans. (a)

16. Subschema can be used to
(a) Create very different, personalised views of the same data
(b) Present information in different formats
(c) Hide sensitive information by omitting fields from the sub-schema’s description
(d) All of the above
Ans. (d)

17. A 12 address lines maps to the memory of
a. 1k bytes b. 0.5k bytes c. 2k bytes d. none
Ans: b

18. In a processor these are 120 instructions . Bits needed to implement this instructions
[a] 6 [b] 7 [c] 10 [d] none
Ans: b

19. In a compiler there is 36 bit for a word and to store a character 8bits are needed. IN this to store a character two words are appended .Then for storing a K characters string, How many words are needed.
[a] 2k/9 [b] (2k+8)/9 [c] (k+8)/9 [d] 2*(k+8)/9 [e] none
Ans: a

20. Virtual memory size depends on
[a] address lines [b] data bus
[c] disc space [d] a & c [e] none
Ans : a

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